Gasman
Enthusiastic Amateur
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- Sep 21, 2011
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No sure how to call the title TBH, so will try and explain.
In attempting to help a user on another forum I find he is doing this.
Declaring a variable as a Field called Fld12
Opening a recordset and setting that Field variable to a recordset field.
He then issues an rs.Edit
He then overwrites this variable field Fld12
Then he issues an Rs.Update
He expects the new value of Fld12 to be in the recordset field that he initially set the Fld12 at the start, or that is my interpretation, otherwise I cannot see how it can be done.
Nowhere does he assign the value of Fld12 to the recordset field before the rs.Update.
He states that similar/identical code works fine.?
I myself have never even seen this.
So is this even possible.?
For complete disclosure the thread is at https://eileenslounge.com/viewtopic.php?f=29&t=39787&p=308456#p308456
TIA
In attempting to help a user on another forum I find he is doing this.
Declaring a variable as a Field called Fld12
Opening a recordset and setting that Field variable to a recordset field.
He then issues an rs.Edit
He then overwrites this variable field Fld12
Then he issues an Rs.Update
He expects the new value of Fld12 to be in the recordset field that he initially set the Fld12 at the start, or that is my interpretation, otherwise I cannot see how it can be done.

Nowhere does he assign the value of Fld12 to the recordset field before the rs.Update.
He states that similar/identical code works fine.?
I myself have never even seen this.
So is this even possible.?
For complete disclosure the thread is at https://eileenslounge.com/viewtopic.php?f=29&t=39787&p=308456#p308456
TIA
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