The database I have is more complex than what I have here but for the sake of saving typing I've tried to make it easy. I've been on this the past couple of days and really haven't been able to get anywhere. I've searched the forum for something and found something similar, but it was an unanswered post. I need to be able to put a field1 (AFE# or something) in, it will be entered manually, and have another field2 (variance #) associated with these to be numbered automatically in intervals but for every new AFE# it will start over at one. The AFE# field won't be just a few AFE#'s but more will be added over time.
This is an example of what I'm needing:
AFE# Variance#
AR2 1
AFQ2 1
AFQ2 2
AFQ1 1
AFQ2 3
AR3 2
I thought this might be an Option; however, I'm not too sure how to do it:
tblVarianceInput with fields like AFE# and Variance#
setup some code in the table that says if the AFE# being entered is equal to any other AFE#'s in the database then the variance# will start at the last increment for that AFE# and add one. Now if the AFE# is a new entry then variance# will start at 1.
Like above if I enter AFE# AFQ2 as new AFE# variance will be 1 then I enter AFQ1 as new its variance# will be 1 then I enter AFQ2 again and its variance# will be 2 and so on
I've tried to put enough information here the first post let me know if it's too generic. If anyone knows a way to work this or if something would work better I'd appreciate any advice.
Thanks,
Eric
This is an example of what I'm needing:
AFE# Variance#
AR2 1
AFQ2 1
AFQ2 2
AFQ1 1
AFQ2 3
AR3 2
I thought this might be an Option; however, I'm not too sure how to do it:
tblVarianceInput with fields like AFE# and Variance#
setup some code in the table that says if the AFE# being entered is equal to any other AFE#'s in the database then the variance# will start at the last increment for that AFE# and add one. Now if the AFE# is a new entry then variance# will start at 1.
Like above if I enter AFE# AFQ2 as new AFE# variance will be 1 then I enter AFQ1 as new its variance# will be 1 then I enter AFQ2 again and its variance# will be 2 and so on
I've tried to put enough information here the first post let me know if it's too generic. If anyone knows a way to work this or if something would work better I'd appreciate any advice.
Thanks,
Eric