If the gov't gives someone $100 in welfare then that person buys food, petrol for the car etc. That will involve indirect tax being paid, income tax being paid by the suppliers of the goods or services and more indirect tax and income tax as the suppliers of the goods and services spend the money they received and on it goes until the $100 goes back to the gov't.
Ditto for the money for bail outs.
In the case of welfare, if someone ceased work and we will assume their work had a salary of $1000 per week, then if the gov't gives them a $1000 a week the only loss I see is that the person has stopped producing whatever goods or services they were producing. But that negative would not apply to the bail outs?
I am sure I am missing something here.
Ditto for the money for bail outs.
In the case of welfare, if someone ceased work and we will assume their work had a salary of $1000 per week, then if the gov't gives them a $1000 a week the only loss I see is that the person has stopped producing whatever goods or services they were producing. But that negative would not apply to the bail outs?
I am sure I am missing something here.