KenHigg
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- Jun 9, 2004
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I don't follow what the link had to do with our discusion...but in trying to get a quick look at the author's reasoning and something seemed odd:
If I wanted to exaimine something existed "within each sex and the overlap that naturally exists between the two sexes.", wouldn't I want to lump the information on men in one group and then likewise with the women?
Then maybe put it all together??
What'd I miss?
The gendered classification of social reality is all-pervasive but at its most profound in dictating how we experience sexual desire. In her book, The Lenses of Gender (Yale University Press), Bem argues that polarization mistakenly lumps all men together and all women together, obliterating the true diversity of impulses that "naturally exists within each sex and the overlap that naturally exists between the two sexes." Among them: erotic interest in people of both sexes, the wish to don vibrant colors and silky textures, feelings of nurturance toward a child.
If I wanted to exaimine something existed "within each sex and the overlap that naturally exists between the two sexes.", wouldn't I want to lump the information on men in one group and then likewise with the women?
Then maybe put it all together??
What'd I miss?